I’m wanting to ask a few questions about the pre-existence of Christ as I am preparing a sermon on Colossians. One of the areas is in how was Christ the Logo’s. How did he pre-exist. I have no doubt about his divinity and have no doubt about his humanity.
I have a question or should that be questions about Christ’s pre-existent nature. Could it be that Christ is referred by John as theWORD because Christ is the fulfilment of God’s words. God spoke and the world came into being. God spoke and things happened. God spoke about Christ and his coming. Therefore Jesus is fully God because he is God’s word. And he fully existed as God’s word in the fullness of God’s word. And because he was and is the word, God created all things through Christ, because Christ is the word of God.
Because Christ is the word of God, he therefore could clearly say – he and his father were / are one and could clearly say he could only do what he see’s the father doing. Within this framework of pre-existence; could it be argued that Christ existed as God, as God’s word – which is distinct to father – just like our words exist, are of us and yet are distinct to us. I’m speaking in human terms which are left wanting. Yet our words are still distinctly us.
Therefore because Christ is the fulfilment of God’s word – and is God’s word – He fully existed as God prior to the incarnation and because he is God’s word and the fulfilment of God’s word he was able to become incarnate as fully human and fully God…and totally fulfils God’s word to save humanity and is now interceding before the Father as the fulfilment of his word as the word.
Therefore Christ is the word of God – fully God, was with God and was God and pre-existed as God’s word and so Christ was and is God and yet was and is distinct from the father who spoke the word, because the father isn’t the word and yet the word and the father are one.
How do you understand the pre-existence of Christ? Any thoughts on what I have said.